BughouseMaster
Banned User
Here's another example that leaves me a little bit confused. With max bet of 500 and min 5, this example shows we have 415, on the button and BR1. BR2 has 275 and the book says 140 is the best bet because it says if we both win, I'll win no matter what BR2 bets and if both lose, I still win no matter what BR2 bets also but........
Is the reason why we bet 140 is because both hands WINNING and both hands LOSING have a higher % chance of happening vs. BR2 winning and me losing? Because that's obviously a possibility too... so with this in mind, why woulnd't 135 be the optimal bet in this situation? 415 - 135 = 280, and if he pushes and I lose I'll still win by 5, and if we both win and both lose I'd advance as well so why is 140 the superior bet in this case?
Is the reason why we bet 140 is because both hands WINNING and both hands LOSING have a higher % chance of happening vs. BR2 winning and me losing? Because that's obviously a possibility too... so with this in mind, why woulnd't 135 be the optimal bet in this situation? 415 - 135 = 280, and if he pushes and I lose I'll still win by 5, and if we both win and both lose I'd advance as well so why is 140 the superior bet in this case?