I've searched all over the internet, including the Wizard of Odds, but can't seem to find the answer to this question. The Wizard's site implies that it does not: "If the player made the Ante bet and has a straight or higher then the player will receive an Ante Bonus, regardless of the value of the dealer's hand. The Pairplus bet will pay entirely based on the poker value of the player's hand, as shown in the Pairplus section below." It is clear that the pairplus bet pays regardless of whether you play or fold, and the wording for pairplus is what implies (to me) that you must play to get the ante bonus, however, the wording for the ante bonus says "If the player made the ante bet ...", i.e. it does not say "If the player played the ante bet ...". Now this does not matter for the basic strategy player who plays anything Q64 or better, or for the tournament player who is playing blind. However, there are tournament situations where it could matter. For example, min 25, max 500, final hand, two players, one advances. Ante bonus pays 1/4/5 (straight, 3 of a kind, straight flush): BR1, bankroll 5000, ante bet 25, pairplus bet 0 BR2, bankroll 3800, ante bet 500, pairplus bet 0 BR1 has tried to lock out BR2 by forcing him to win more than two max ante bets. BR2 has bet max, trying to do just that. For the purposes of this example, let's not get into why BR2 didn't bet on pairplus (I believe that he can afford to). Now assume that BR2 has been dealt three-of-a-kind. If the ante bonus pays after folding, then BR2 can lock out BR1 by folding. He will lose his ante, but win 4 bets on the bonus for a net win of 3. If he plays, then there is a small chance that he will lose to the dealer, which would reduce his net win to 2 units. Better to take a lock than to take a chance. If the ante bonus does not pay after folding then BR2 has no choice but to play his hand. Does anyone know the answer to this?