Last night I was at our area casino for a tournament. Bet range is $5 - $300. 20 hands per round. Natural pays 2-1. We were on hand 19 with 3 in contention as follows
Everyone bet $300. BR1a was dealt a natural. BR1b was dealt an 11 and doubled picking up a 10. I was dealt K Q, which I split. Got a J on the first one and a Q on the second one. Dealer had an 8 with a 10 down for 18. So after hand 19, money was as follows
On Hand 20 everyone bet $300 again. BR1b got a 10 and doubled picking up a 9 for 19. I had 13 but had to double and got a 10 to bust. BR1a had 9 9 but for some reason stayed on what they had. Dealer had a 7 this time with a 6 down and drew a 10 to bust, giving BR1a the victory.
My question in on hand 19. If I would've had enough should I have split again and secondly, should I have taken a second split into account when I sized my bet, ie, should I have bet $295 instead of $300 so I could split a second time.
- BR1a* - $925
- BR1b - $925
- Me - $895
Everyone bet $300. BR1a was dealt a natural. BR1b was dealt an 11 and doubled picking up a 10. I was dealt K Q, which I split. Got a J on the first one and a Q on the second one. Dealer had an 8 with a 10 down for 18. So after hand 19, money was as follows
- BR1a - $1525
- BR1b* - $1525
- Me - $1495
On Hand 20 everyone bet $300 again. BR1b got a 10 and doubled picking up a 9 for 19. I had 13 but had to double and got a 10 to bust. BR1a had 9 9 but for some reason stayed on what they had. Dealer had a 7 this time with a 6 down and drew a 10 to bust, giving BR1a the victory.
My question in on hand 19. If I would've had enough should I have split again and secondly, should I have taken a second split into account when I sized my bet, ie, should I have bet $295 instead of $300 so I could split a second time.