Blackjack Rebel Too
Member
I got to thinking about this while doing my walking yesterday. You have two video poker machines. One is a dollar machine with a JOB 8/5 pay table and the expected $4,000 payout for a full-coin royal. The other is a $5 machine with a JOB 9/6 pay table with a $20,000 payout for a full-coin royal.
Your playing options are to play full coin on the dollar machine ($5 a hand) or single coin on the $5 machine ($5 a hand). Your royal on the dollar machine will be $4,000 and your royal on the $5 machine will be $1,250 (250 credits)
You are giving up $2,750 on the royal by playing the $5 machine. The figure quoted for royal expectations is once every 40,000 hands.
My question is this. How close to making up that difference of $2,750 would the extra $5 you earn on the $5 machine each time a full house or flush comes up if you played out the expected 40,000 hands. Obviously, you would have to hit a combination of 550 flushes and full houses in those hands but I was curious how likely or unlikely that situation occuring was according to the math.
Thanks for any help.
Your playing options are to play full coin on the dollar machine ($5 a hand) or single coin on the $5 machine ($5 a hand). Your royal on the dollar machine will be $4,000 and your royal on the $5 machine will be $1,250 (250 credits)
You are giving up $2,750 on the royal by playing the $5 machine. The figure quoted for royal expectations is once every 40,000 hands.
My question is this. How close to making up that difference of $2,750 would the extra $5 you earn on the $5 machine each time a full house or flush comes up if you played out the expected 40,000 hands. Obviously, you would have to hit a combination of 550 flushes and full houses in those hands but I was curious how likely or unlikely that situation occuring was according to the math.
Thanks for any help.